Veterinary Preventive Medicine MCQs 50 Score: 0 Attempted: 0/50 Subscribe 1. What is the main goal of veterinary preventive medicine? (A) Treatment of diseased animals (B) Prevention and control of animal diseases (C) Animal product marketing (D) Genetic modification of animals 2. Which is a component of preventive medicine? (A) Quarantine (B) Vaccination (C) Surveillance (D) All of the above 3. The term “quarantine” refers to: (A) Slaughter of sick animals (B) Isolation of animals suspected of carrying diseases (C) Vaccination of all animals (D) Transporting animals to markets 4. Prophylaxis refers to: (A) Diagnosis of disease (B) Prevention of disease (C) Treatment of disease (D) Quarantine of animals 5. Which vaccine type contains killed organisms? (A) Live attenuated (B) Inactivated vaccine (C) Recombinant vaccine (D) DNA vaccine 6. Herd immunity is achieved through: (A) Antibiotic therapy (B) Mass vaccination (C) Selective breeding (D) Culling of animals 7. Ring vaccination is used in: (A) Preventing zoonoses only (B) Eradication programs to contain outbreaks (C) Genetic improvement (D) Artificial insemination 8. Test-and-slaughter policy is used for controlling: (A) Foot-and-mouth disease (B) Brucellosis (C) Rabies (D) Rinderpest 9. Colostrum provides: (A) Active immunity (B) Passive immunity (C) Autoimmunity (D) Cellular immunity only 10. Which of the following is a notifiable disease? (A) Mastitis (B) Brucellosis (C) Milk fever (D) Bloat 11. The period between infection and onset of clinical signs is called: (A) Incubation period (B) Latent period (C) Recovery period (D) Infectious period 12. FMD vaccine is generally: (A) Live attenuated (B) Killed/inactivated (C) Recombinant DNA (D) Toxoid 13. Which disinfectant is commonly used in veterinary hospitals? (A) Sodium hypochlorite (B) Sugar solution (C) Urea (D) Starch 14. Zoonotic diseases can be controlled through: (A) Public awareness (B) Animal vaccination (C) Meat inspection (D) All of the above 15. Which disease was eradicated globally in 2011? (A) Rabies (B) Rinderpest (C) Anthrax (D) PPR 16. DIVA vaccines help in: (A) Differentiating infected from vaccinated animals (B) Enhancing meat production (C) Producing higher milk yield (D) Destroying infectious vectors 17. Acaricides are used to control: (A) Helminths (B) Fungi (C) Ticks and mites (D) Viruses 18. Which is the main method to prevent anthrax in animals? (A) Test-and-slaughter (B) Vaccination (C) Antibiotic treatment (D) Quarantine alone 19. Sentinel animals are used in: (A) Disease eradication programs (B) Early detection of disease outbreaks (C) Livestock marketing (D) Milk yield monitoring 20. Biosecurity refers to: (A) Breeding programs (B) Management practices to prevent introduction and spread of disease (C) Exporting animals safely (D) Milk preservation techniques 21. Which of the following is a vector-borne disease? (A) Brucellosis (B) Bluetongue (C) Tuberculosis (D) Mastitis 22. The primary aim of quarantine is to: (A) Increase immunity (B) Prevent introduction of exotic diseases (C) Improve genetics (D) Boost feed efficiency 23. A live attenuated vaccine should not be given to: (A) Healthy adult animals (B) Pregnant animals (C) Farm dogs (D) Dairy cows 24. The principle of vaccination is based on: (A) Passive immunity (B) Active immunity (C) Genetic modification (D) Antimicrobial resistance 25. Which organization coordinates global animal disease eradication? (A) FAO (B) WHO (C) OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health) (D) WTO 26. Chemoprophylaxis means: (A) Treating diseased animals (B) Using drugs to prevent diseases (C) Using vaccines for mass immunization (D) None of the above 27. PPR stands for: (A) Peste des Petits Ruminants (B) Pasture Parasite Resistance (C) Protein Production Ratio (D) Primary Pathogen Resistance 28. Which type of immunity is acquired after recovery from a disease? (A) Passive (B) Innate (C) Active (D) Artificial passive 29. Vector control includes: (A) Tick dipping (B) Mosquito netting (C) Rodent control (D) All of the above 30. Which is a core component of farm biosecurity? (A) Isolation of new animals (B) Regular deworming (C) Vaccination schedule (D) All of the above 31. The “test and slaughter” policy is effective for: (A) Anthrax (B) Brucellosis (C) Black quarter (D) Rabies 32. Carrier animals are important in preventive medicine because they: (A) Do not spread diseases (B) Spread diseases without showing clinical signs (C) Always show clinical signs (D) Are immune to infections 33. Disinfection of premises after an outbreak is called: (A) Sanitation (B) Depopulation (C) Terminal disinfection (D) Quarantine 34. Which of the following is a non-specific defense mechanism? (A) Antibody production (B) Skin barrier (C) Vaccination (D) Passive immunity 35. What is the main route of rinderpest transmission? (A) Direct contact (B) Airborne (C) Contaminated water (D) Ticks 36. Vector-borne zoonotic disease among the following is: (A) Rabies (B) Rift Valley fever (C) Mastitis (D) Black quarter 37. Which animals are primarily vaccinated against PPR? (A) Poultry (B) Cattle (C) Sheep and goats (D) Pigs 38. Which method helps in early disease detection? (A) Post-mortem examination (B) Disease surveillance (C) Feed analysis (D) Artificial insemination 39. What does stamping out mean in preventive medicine? (A) Eradication of disease by slaughtering all affected and in-contact animals (B) Dipping animals in acaricides (C) Vaccinating healthy animals only (D) Export restriction 40. A zoonotic bacterial disease controlled by pasteurization is: (A) Brucellosis (B) Tuberculosis (C) Q fever (D) All of the above 41. Which type of immunity is conferred by vaccination? (A) Active (B) Passive (C) Innate (D) Genetic 42. Which disease uses “S19” and “RB51” vaccines? (A) Rabies (B) Brucellosis (C) Anthrax (D) PPR 43. Which step is essential before vaccination? (A) Feed supplementation (B) Deworming (C) Branding (D) Quarantine 44. Fomites are: (A) Insects that transmit diseases (B) Inanimate objects that spread infection (C) Live vaccines (D) Antibodies in colostrum 45. Which factor does NOT affect vaccine efficacy? (A) Storage temperature (B) Age of animal (C) Route of administration (D) Breed color 46. What does a “notifiable disease” imply? (A) Disease must be reported to veterinary authorities (B) Disease is harmless (C) Disease is rare (D) Disease only affects wild animals 47. The primary purpose of mass deworming is to: (A) Improve feed conversion efficiency (B) Prevent parasitic diseases (C) Increase body temperature (D) Enhance reproduction 48. Vector for Japanese Encephalitis is: (A) Mosquito (B) Tick (C) Flea (D) Louse 49. Which is an example of chemoprophylaxis? (A) Use of anthelmintics (B) Pasteurization of milk (C) Footbath disinfection (D) Vaccination 50. Which is the most sustainable approach in preventive medicine? (A) Eradication only (B) One Health approach (C) Mass slaughter (D) Routine culling