Veterinary Epidemiology MCQs

1. What does epidemiology primarily study?
(A) Individual treatment of animals
(B) Distribution and determinants of diseases in populations
(C) Genetic modification of livestock
(D) Animal nutrition patterns

2. The basic reproductive number (R0) refers to:
(A) Number of animals treated per day
(B) Average number of secondary cases caused by one infected individual
(C) Mortality rate of a disease
(D) Duration of immunity after vaccination

3. Incidence measures:
(A) Existing cases of a disease
(B) New cases over a specific period of time
(C) Total deaths in a population
(D) Disease-free animals

4. Prevalence measures:
(A) Only new cases
(B) Existing cases at a specific point or period
(C) Mortality rate
(D) Vaccine efficacy

5. A disease that is constantly present in a particular region is called:
(A) Epidemic
(B) Pandemic
(C) Endemic
(D) Sporadic

6. An epidemic that spreads across countries is known as:
(A) Endemic
(B) Sporadic
(C) Pandemic
(D) Outbreak

7. The term “zoonosis” refers to:
(A) Diseases transmitted from animals to humans
(B) Diseases confined to plants
(C) Only viral diseases
(D) Genetic diseases in animals

8. Surveillance in epidemiology means:
(A) Treating animals with antibiotics
(B) Continuous collection and analysis of health data
(C) Isolating infected animals only
(D) Vaccinating a herd

9. Passive surveillance involves:
(A) Actively seeking out disease cases
(B) Relying on routine reporting by health workers
(C) Conducting mass vaccination
(D) Quarantine measures only

10. Active surveillance is characterized by:
(A) No field investigation
(B) Actively searching for disease cases
(C) Voluntary reporting by farmers
(D) Quarantine only

11. Case fatality rate refers to:
(A) Deaths in the entire population
(B) Deaths among the diagnosed cases
(C) Mortality due to accidents
(D) Mortality due to unknown causes

12. Point source epidemic arises from:
(A) Multiple sources
(B) A common source over a short period
(C) Only viral diseases
(D) Sporadic introduction of disease

13. Herd immunity refers to:
(A) Individual resistance to disease
(B) Population-level resistance due to vaccination or prior infection
(C) Use of antibiotics in a herd
(D) Natural immunity in newborns

14. Which is an example of a zoonotic bacterial disease?
(A) Rabies
(B) Brucellosis
(C) Distemper
(D) Newcastle disease

15. What is the term for the first identified patient in an outbreak?
(A) Carrier
(B) Index case
(C) Reservoir
(D) Sentinel case

16. The term “reservoir” in epidemiology refers to:
(A) Only dead animals carrying infection
(B) Any habitat where an infectious agent normally lives and multiplies
(C) Water body for disease spread
(D) A place for storing vaccines

17. A carrier that spreads disease without symptoms is called:
(A) Healthy carrier
(B) Acute carrier
(C) Dead-end host
(D) Intermediate host

18. Secondary attack rate measures:
(A) Primary cases
(B) Spread among close contacts of primary cases
(C) Mortality rate
(D) Total incidence

19. Which method is used to measure the strength of association in epidemiological studies?
(A) Incidence rate
(B) Odds ratio
(C) Prevalence
(D) Herd immunity level

20. Randomized controlled trials are considered:
(A) Descriptive studies
(B) Analytical observational studies
(C) Experimental studies
(D) Case reports

21. Cross-sectional studies measure:
(A) Cause and effect directly
(B) Exposure and outcome at the same time
(C) Only risk factors
(D) Future predictions

22. Cohort studies are used to:
(A) Study past exposures
(B) Follow groups over time to study disease development
(C) Estimate prevalence
(D) Test vaccine potency

23. Case-control studies are useful for:
(A) Rare diseases
(B) Vaccine trials
(C) Mass screening
(D) Food safety analysis only

24. Epidemic curve provides:
(A) Geographic distribution of disease
(B) Time trend of an outbreak
(C) Cause of disease
(D) Clinical signs of disease

25. Quarantine is defined as:
(A) Isolation of healthy animals suspected of exposure
(B) Treatment of sick animals
(C) Mass vaccination
(D) Disinfection of equipment

26. Isolation is applied to:
(A) Healthy animals
(B) Sick or infected animals
(C) Carriers only
(D) Vaccinated animals

27. Sentinel animals are used for:
(A) Slaughterhouse inspection
(B) Early detection of emerging diseases
(C) Transport of vaccines
(D) Breeding experiments

28. The term “vector” refers to:
(A) A living organism that transmits pathogens
(B) A disease-causing virus only
(C) A vaccine delivery tool
(D) A genetic carrier

29. Mechanical vector differs from biological vector in:
(A) Not supporting multiplication of pathogen
(B) Always being a mammal
(C) Requiring vaccination
(D) Supporting pathogen growth

30. Incubation period is:
(A) Time between exposure and clinical signs
(B) Duration of clinical signs
(C) Recovery period
(D) Time after vaccination

31. Which of the following is a direct transmission route?
(A) Mosquito bite
(B) Inhalation of droplets
(C) Tick bite
(D) Contaminated water

32. The term “epizootic” refers to:
(A) Sporadic disease in humans
(B) Sudden outbreak of disease in animals
(C) Endemic disease in wildlife
(D) Vector-borne human disease

33. What does the term “panzootic” mean?
(A) Disease limited to one farm
(B) Disease occurring worldwide in animals
(C) Mild infection in a region
(D) Non-infectious disease outbreak

34. The incubation period of rabies in dogs is typically:
(A) 1–3 days
(B) 2–8 weeks
(C) 6–12 months
(D) Few hours

35. The most effective method of controlling vector-borne diseases is:
(A) Isolation only
(B) Vector control
(C) Antibiotic treatment
(D) Deworming

36. Relative risk is calculated in:
(A) Case-control studies
(B) Cohort studies
(C) Cross-sectional studies
(D) Descriptive studies

37. The term “sporadic disease” refers to:
(A) Occurs occasionally and irregularly
(B) Constantly present
(C) Rapid spread over large area
(D) Always fatal

38. Which statistical test is commonly used to analyze association in epidemiology?
(A) t-test
(B) Chi-square test
(C) ANOVA
(D) Mann–Whitney test

39. The term “attack rate” indicates:
(A) Number of deaths in a population
(B) Proportion of exposed animals developing the disease
(C) Number of carriers in a herd
(D) Rate of vaccine response

40. A “notifiable disease” is:
(A) Reported voluntarily
(B) Required by law to be reported to authorities
(C) Only reported during pandemics
(D) Only for exotic animals

41. Which type of immunity develops after natural infection?
(A) Passive immunity
(B) Active immunity
(C) Innate immunity
(D) Herd immunity only

42. What is the main objective of vaccination programs?
(A) Increase disease prevalence
(B) Establish herd immunity
(C) Detect new pathogens
(D) Replace quarantine measures

43. Fomites are:
(A) Living carriers
(B) Inanimate objects transmitting infection
(C) Only food items
(D) Chemical disinfectants

44. The “one health” concept integrates:
(A) Animal health only
(B) Human and animal health with environment
(C) Plant health only
(D) Zoonotic surveillance only

45. Which organization sets international animal disease reporting standards?
(A) WHO
(B) OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health)
(C) FAO
(D) CDC

46. The epidemic triangle includes:
(A) Pathogen, treatment, vaccine
(B) Host, agent, environment
(C) Agent, immunity, food
(D) Vector, host, drug

47. “Ring vaccination” is:
(A) Vaccinating all animals in a country
(B) Vaccinating only infected animals
(C) Vaccinating animals around the outbreak area
(D) Emergency mass vaccination

48. Which type of study is best for hypothesis generation?
(A) Case report
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Cohort study
(D) Randomized controlled trial

49. Disease eradication refers to:
(A) Reducing disease incidence to an acceptable level
(B) Complete elimination of a disease worldwide
(C) Reducing mortality rate
(D) Temporary disease control

50. Which is an example of a vector-borne zoonotic disease?
(A) Rabies
(B) Brucellosis
(C) Rift Valley Fever
(D) Foot-and-mouth disease